From Whiteland, Indiana, USA:
A friend of mine at work said he was diagnosed with prediabetes (which my doctor says is no longer a valid term). He was put on 3000 mg of Glucophage per day, but I was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes and was put on 500 mg per day. Doesn't this seem extremely high for him to be on if he doesn't have diabetes?
Prediabetes is an acceptable clinical term. What is not acceptable is "borderline diabetes." Prediabetes almost always refers to the condition called impaired glucose tolerance. Historically, this has been diagnosed with an oral glucose tolerance test. However, the American Diabetes Association has coined a new designation termed "impaired fasting glucose." If prediabetes is present, there is a 90% chance of developing type 2 diabetes over ten years.
A large trial has looked at taking people with prediabetes and treating them with Glucophage [metformin]. This therapy was found to help prevent the onset of the disease. However, it was less potent in its effect of preventing diabetes, compared to lifestyle modification of diet and exercise. I would respond by saying that Glucophage in type 2 diabetes and prediabetes are appropriate and have a basis in medical literature.
Original posting 29 Oct 2003
Posted to Pills for Diabetes
This Internet site provides information of a general nature and is designed for educational purposes only. If you have any concerns about your own health or the health of your child, you should always consult with a physician or other health care professional.
This site is published by T-1 Today, Inc. (d/b/a Children with Diabetes), a 501c3 not-for-profit organization, which is responsible for its contents. Our mission is to provide education and support to families living with type 1 diabetes.
© Children with Diabetes, Inc. 1995-2018. Comments and Feedback.