A friend of mine at work said he was diagnosed with prediabetes (which my doctor says is no longer a valid term). He was put on 3000 mg of Glucophage per day, but I was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes and was put on 500 mg per day. Doesn’t this seem extremely high for him to be on if he doesn’t have diabetes?

Prediabetes is an acceptable clinical term. What is not acceptable is “borderline diabetes.” Prediabetes almost always refers to the condition called impaired glucose tolerance. Historically, this has been diagnosed with an oral glucose tolerance test. However, the American Diabetes Association has coined a new designation termed “impaired fasting glucose.” If prediabetes is present, there is a 90% chance of developing type 2 diabetes over ten years.

A large trial has looked at taking people with prediabetes and treating them with Glucophage [metformin]. This therapy was found to help prevent the onset of the disease. However, it was less potent in its effect of preventing diabetes, compared to lifestyle modification of diet and exercise. I would respond by saying that Glucophage in type 2 diabetes and prediabetes are appropriate and have a basis in medical literature.

JTL