I have a follow-up to your answer: “It is type 2 diabetes that is most commonly associated with dyslipidemia. Type 1 diabetes does not necessarily have a dyslipidemia associated with it, unless there is marked hyperglycemia.” Does this suggest that excess/more unutilized insulin or glucose for glucose uptake, due to insulin resistance, is a reason to getting dyslipidemia as common in type 2 but uncommon in type 1?

Furthermore, are higher glucose levels but lower lipids levels less harmful in type 2 than normal or some higher level of blood glucose with higher lipids levels (as in my case)?

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