March 19, 2007
Question from India:
I have a follow-up to your answer: "It is type 2 diabetes that is most commonly associated with dyslipidemia. Type 1 diabetes does not necessarily have a dyslipidemia associated with it, unless there is marked hyperglycemia." Does this suggest that excess/more unutilized insulin or glucose for glucose uptake, due to insulin resistance, is a reason to getting dyslipidemia as common in type 2 but uncommon in type 1? Furthermore, are higher glucose levels but lower lipids levels less harmful in type 2 than normal or some higher level of blood glucose with higher lipids levels (as in my case)?
The thinking is that type 2 diabetes has, at its very roots, some form of insulin resistance that impacts lipid metabolism in a way not present in type 1 diabetes. High glucose levels are bad in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes. This has been shown over and over. When you have elevated lipids, that adds an additional layer of risk.